KPMD Pilot Initial Qualification Exercise Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which practice best supports CRM principles during flight operations?
• If a reserve tank leak occurs, shut down the ___.
• According to the MEL, can you take off with one FD Mode Select Panel inoperative?
• Besides interphone, which system can be used to accomplish altitude calls and acknowledgments?
• During depressurization, the maximum hydraulic flow occurs at what pressure?
• How can icing affect flight performance and what strategies reduce icing exposure?
• When landing with ___, avoid excessive flare with resultant floating in an attempt for a smooth landing. Make a normal flare and touchdown at threshold speed minus 10 knots.
• If fuel appears insufficient for the planned reserves, what is the proper action?
• For a rolling takeoff, as the airplane approaches runway heading, ensure the N1 rpm is in the ___ range and symmetrical.
• Heading corrections while in HDG mode are limited to minor adjustments of less than how many degrees?
• What is a waypoint and how is it used in flight planning?
• Once an IDG is disconnected, it can only be reconnected on the ground with the engine ___.
• Which display shows the EEID reversionary format when the EEID/NORM switch is selected, automatically if the EEID fails, or if the CIPS is operating (loss of all generators)?
• Explain the difference between usable fuel and total fuel and their importance in planning.
• Which statement best describes the 0.2g-limited pitch command scenario in IAS/Mach mode with AP engaged?
• What is the definition of ground minimum control speed (Vmcg)?
• How does VOR/DME navigation help determine position?
• During preflight, if the landing gear lever is not down, in the detent, ensure that the nose gear ground ___ and release handle is installed. Notify ___ and ___ immediately.
• After landing, the PM will monitor engine deceleration and advise the PF of any engines that remain in what state?
• What are the maximum numbers for ETCAS target tracking and display?
• Which factor is explicitly listed as influencing takeoff distance?
• When landing with partial spoilers (inboards or outboards), by what percentage do the landing ground roll increase, and by what percentage does the delayed braking distance increase?
• Which speeds are compared to Vmcg in determining S1?
• If the switched DC bus failure light comes on, it indicates ___ to the switched DC bus has failed.
• Define basic empty weight and describe how it relates to computing loaded weight.
• What is the typical regulatory meaning of the term 'operating limitations' in the POH?
• During a go-around, what action do both pilots take with the TOGA/AP DISC switches?
• Which statement about Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) is true?
• Describe the recovery from an unexpected spin.
• When repositioning fuel panel valves and switches, what is required?
• What should you do if you encounter severe icing in flight?
• How does density altitude affect engine and propeller performance?
• What cues are important for maintaining situational awareness?
• In air refueling operations, ARCP stands for what?
• Simulated engine-out approaches and touch-and-go landings are not authorized when PMC is inoperative.
• When the AP is engaged, pressing the SYNC pushbutton places the FD in ___ and ___ mode, except when APPR or T/O mode is active.
• Which item is included in emergency procedures for a VFR cross-country flight?
• During takeoff, the pilot monitoring will guard the throttles to prevent throttle creep: when?
• What is the main benefit of connecting load buses to a synchronizing bus via bus tie breakers?
• Which condition regarding surface winds triggers filing two alternates?
• When there is any doubt about the validity of an EGPWS alert, what should the crew do?
• What does 'ads-b no-op' displayed in the annunciation line mean?
• What is 'squawk' in aviation?
• During a bounce recovery with a four-engine go-around, failure to advance all throttles will result in what condition?
• In IAS or MACH mode, the flight director's minimum climb/descent rate of 100 fpm is commanded regardless of which parameter?
• What is the purpose of a final approach briefing?
• During initial contact, after transmitting your position and altitude and making a request, what should you do next?
• Which instruction governs the alternate airfield requirements used for planning?
• The calm wind correction concept is applied during which phase of flight?
• What does a TAF provide and how is it used?
• Automatic disengagement occurs when an excessive attitude condition is detected. What bank angle threshold defines this condition?
• In APUG generator only mode, bleed air for air conditioning or engine start is not available. Which option best describes this?
• For takeoff with fuel in any main tank below ___ lbs, open all tank-to-engine manifold valves.
• In a VFR cross-country flight, what is the purpose of exit points?
• During engine start, for temperatures at or below what, set the appropriate engine starter switches to ignition after the N2 reaches 50%?
• Which weather phenomenon is more commonly associated with cold fronts than warm fronts?
• For landing with one engine inoperative and rudder power inoperative, fly final approach with 30 flaps using charted ___ and ___ SPEEDS, or as computed by the FSAS.
• The IDG is equipped with a ___ which, when actuated from the overhead control panel, disconnects the generator from its drive.
• Prior to starting engines and after setting parking brakes, pressurize the reserve brakes until a pressure increase of at least ___ psi above preload pressure is observed.
• In Flight Director ALTS mode, which altitude reference is ignored by the altitude alerter?
• What is airspace classification and why does it matter for flight planning?
• Which statement best describes the guidance on alternate locations when forecasts are marginal?
• When flaps are retracted to the UP position during the takeoff phase, the pilot monitoring should check rudder pressure drops to the ___.
• According to the Minimum Equipment List, you can take off with the No. 4 main tank fuel quantity gauge inoperative.
• Manual damping of Dutch roll is to be accomplished only with ___; Do not attempt to damp Dutch roll manually with the ___.
• Verbal coordination is required when repositioning valves and switches on which panel?
• Do not operate the landing lights more than ___ on the ground, and during ground operation of the taxi lights, try to avoid light operation of more than ___.
• Which two instruments are not available in reversionary format?
• Which statement correctly differentiates true course, magnetic course, and heading?
• How do you perform a go/no-go decision for landing in marginal weather?
• What is the correct format for initial contact with a control facility?
• How does fatigue impact decision-making and what strategies can mitigate it?
• The maximum EGT for engine start is:
• During preflight, prior to performing the flap and speed brake warning horn check, ensure which of the following?
• Moving a hydraulic system pressure switch to OFF opens which valve, resulting in maximum flow circulation of fluid at a reduced pressure (750 psi or less)?
• Which of the following is a recommended prerequisite before initiating the first turn in a standard VFR traffic pattern?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical element of a final approach briefing?
• Which statement best facilitates clear radio communications during flight?
• What is scenario-based risk assessment and how is it applied in flight planning?
• APU generator only mode - Bleed air for air conditioning or engine start is what in this mode?
• Which indicators should be checked first to diagnose uncommanded yaw or roll as potentially due to engine failure or asymmetric flap condition?
• Who must acknowledge altitude deviations during climb or descent?
• Before selecting HDG mode on the FD MSP, what must be synchronized?
• Which takeoff minimums are correct for operational and all other categories?
• The load buses can be interconnected through ___ to a synchronizing bus which allows parallel operation of the generators.
• Low hydraulic pressure with no other indications may indicate ___ as a possible cause.
• The AOA limiter stall fence feature is present in the AOA system and engaged by the Flight Director.
• What is the purpose of CRM and how does it reduce risk?
• During a total engine failure in the traffic pattern, what is the recommended action sequence?
• The ETCAS system can track up to ___ targets and display up to ___.
• On the ground, airflow across the heat exchangers is induced using a bleed air what?
• What is the proper action when you encounter a stall at low altitude with nose-high attitude?
• What is the purpose of a standard preflight inspection?
• Choose alternates that best meet mission requirements and conserve fuel. Those selected should not be ___, if terminal forecasts are marginal.
• During which phase is the final N1 setting adjustment between 40 and 80 knots performed by the pilot monitoring?
• OG/CC approval is required for landings planned with greater than which DBF?
• HDG MISCOMP comes on when the differential heading error is after localizer capture for more than how many seconds?
• During air refueling, when either number 3 or 4 hydraulic pump inoperative, only the ___ air refueling pumps in the forward/aft body tanks should be used. This will ensure that the ___ is not deprived of available hydraulic supply.
• What does 'IFMP NOGO' message mean on the FSAS STATUS page?
• Which axis does the Flight Director control when SYNC is pressed with AP engaged?
• In abnormal AC power conditions, one allowed action is to reset tripped circuit breakers.
• Which set of instruments comprise the primary flight instruments and their indications?
• Name three key components to verify during exterior preflight.
• During an outboard engine failure, takeoff continued, when would you expect EFAS to disengage? Airspeed exceeds ___ knots or the flaps are retracted above ___.
• To provide bleed air for starting engines No 3 and 4 and for operation of the air cycle machine, the bleed air crossover valve must be in which position?
• N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speed will be recomputed when which changes occur?
• How do you calculate leg time when wind is a factor?
• How would you request a heading change to avoid conflicting traffic?
• Turns during climbout will not be used with fewer than how many engines operating?
• Which three roles must be involved for a practice emergency separation coordination?
• During landing with less than full flaps, the target touchdown speed is at threshold speed minus how many knots?
• What is a weight-and-balance check and why is it essential before flight?
• Ground idle N2 range values are given as 54 and 62. Which option correctly lists these values?
• To dump fuel, it is not necessary to have the boom out of the stowed position.
• Altitude calls and acknowledgments are mandatory and will be made over interphone unless accomplished by which equipment?
• To whom does the pilot monitoring report engine deceleration during landing roll?
• What is the primary purpose of standard operating procedures in aviation?
• What is instrument cross-check and why is it important in IFR flight?
• How should you respond to a loss of electrical power?
• A nacelle fire is indicated by a compartment overheat light; fire warning light. Which indicators are used to signal a nacelle fire?
• What does the vertical speed indicator represent in the primary flight instruments?
• During landing roll, the pilot monitoring will monitor engine deceleration and advise when any engine remains in which state?
• How do you verify fuel status and ensure adequate reserves for planned flight?
• What flap setting is specified for the final approach in the one-engine-inoperative scenario?
• For a typical VFR landing pattern, the first turn should not be initiated until which of the following is satisfied?
• Which instrument provides the primary reference for pitch and bank in straight-and-level flight?
• What is the recommended practice to manage workload to maintain situational awareness?
• What is the definition of maximum motoring?
• During an actual or simulated engine loss, limit bank angle to ___ degrees until, as a minimum, the landing gear is up and maneuvering speed is reached. If terrain and obstacles permit, climb straight ahead.
• For an inboard engine inoperative, ____ power may be used on all operating engines.
• What documentation should be checked for currency prior to flight?
• Which statement about maintenance logs is accurate?
• Prior to actual accomplishment of a practice emergency separation coordination between which parties is mandatory?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor influencing takeoff distance?
• What are the three positions of the cabin pressure test valve handle?
• Which statement best describes the meaning of ADS-B no-op?
• Which statement about angle of attack and stall speed is true?
• Verbal coordination between applicable crewmembers is required when repositioning which valves and switches?
• When landing with an engine inoperative and rudder power inoperative, pay particular attention to which Go-Around N1 power settings?
• Which elements are essential components of a VFR cross-country flight plan?
• During RV Golf operations, tanker(s) and receiver(s) navigate independently to arrive at the ARIP ___.
• Which action best mitigates fatigue's impact on decision making?
• During engine start, when the throttle is moved from CUTOFF to START, the fuel flow ranges from 300 to 680. After ignition, the fuel flow rate increases to approximately 900. Which option matches the range for the throttle movement?
• Why is weather information included in a VFR cross-country flight plan?
• After landing, which engines should be reported as still in flight idle?
• For positive down spoilers, the speed brake lever should be ___. This is due to rigging tolerances and is necessary to ensure that the lever is in the forward detent.
• During takeoff, which crew member will make the final N1 setting adjustment between 40 and 80 knots?
• On a go-around, the minimum speed for retracting flaps to 30 is ___.
• What is the PIC's primary responsibility during flight?
• What is maneuvering speed for a 30° flap airplane in the traffic pattern?
• What is the normally used delayed braking factor (DBF) for computing landing distance?
• (Flight Director) The ALTS mode ignores the altitude alerter ___ mode; therefore, the FD command bars will not capture ___.
• If the landing gear will not move to the up position, then prior to using the override trigger, check ___.
• During preflight checks of the Autopilot and Flight Director, any combination of APC (SYS 1 or SYS 2) and FD (L or R) may be used.
• During descent, a speed brake lever position of less than ___ is not recommended due to the tendency to overcontrol at these settings.
• When should you use the phrases Mayday and Pan-Pan?
• Takeoff winds may be reported as light and variable or calm. If light and variable is reported, the agency will be queried to determine the ___ wind velocity and ___.
• All crewmembers will inform the pilot when ___.
• Another allowed action is to shutdown the generator.
• What is normal maneuvering speed for a 20° flap airplane on takeoff?
• Which item is part of a standard exterior preflight check?
• If gusts cause the flap retraction speed to approach or exceed flap placard speed, which speed should be used for flap retraction?
• In a stabilizer trim runaway that occurs at or below S1, simultaneously, the pilot flying will which action and the pilot not flying will which action?
• Which two conditions require filing two alternates?
• After ignition, the fuel flow rate increases to approximately what value?
• Which documents must be on board and readily available during flight?
• When in IAS or MACH mode the FD commands a minimum ___ fpm climb/descent, regardless of ___.
• What minimum rudder hydraulic pressure (approximately) is required to engage the YAW DAMPER switch?
• If the landing gear lever is not down in detent during preflight, which two groups should be notified immediately?
• In descent, a speed brake lever position of less than 40 degrees is not recommended due to tendency to overcontrol.
• During a go-around, immediately advance symmetric engines to the ____ power setting.
• If the emergency dictates and the APU has not shut down automatically, the APU(s) may be shut down by using which method?
• (RV DELTA) When ___, the tanker will adjust to the appropriate air refueling speed.
• During climbout after takeoff, the maximum allowable speed deviation is +8 knots with 20° flaps and +3 knots with 30° flaps. What is the value?
• File two alternates when the forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than ___ or if the forecast surface winds (intermittent or prevailing) exceed limits corrected for RCR.
• What is the role of alternates in a cross-country flight plan?
• For touch-and-go landings, immediately after the nose gear touches down, the pilot flying will advance the throttles approximately how many knob widths and to what setting?
• When using greater than what DBF will crews brief the planned braking speed?
• Verbal coordination is required when repositioning which valves and switches?
• If crossover is made to the left hydraulic system, the leading edge flaps will ___. Add ___ to the approach and threshold speeds.
• How do you communicate a loss of communications to ATC?
• Which icing exposure strategy best reduces icing exposure during flight?
• If a starter valve fails to engage during engine start, set the starter switch to OFF for how many seconds before attempting another start?
• The OVER TEMP caution light illuminates if the bleed air temperature just downstream of the bleed air precooler reaches what value?
• According to AFMAN 11-217 V1, you are considered established in the holding pattern upon initial passage ___.
• If the waypoint identified as a pattern fix becomes the active waypoint while an offset is defined, or a hold pattern is applied to the active waypoint with an offset applied, the offset is automatically canceled. Which statement best describes this behavior?
• Ground idle N2 range is ___ to ___.
• Which action should be taken if stabilizer trim movement continues after cutoff and actuation cannot be stopped by normal procedures?
• For how many seconds must the heading error persist after localizer capture before MISCOMP engages?
• Which statement about METAR information is true?
• Why is it important to plan using usable fuel rather than total fuel?
• The three-engine CRN must be at least what percent to allow climbout turns?
• What describes coordinated flight and the role of rudder and ailerons in a turn?
• Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds ___.
• The Heading Miscompare Indicator (HDG MISCOMP) comes on when a differential heading error exists between selected systems of how many degrees before localizer capture?
• If a main tank fuel leak occurs, shut down the ___ on the respective wing.
• What is wind shear and why is it important during takeoff and landing?
• If a stabilizer occurs above S1, the PM will set the stabilizer trim switch to CUTOFF. If actuation of the cutout switch fails to stop trim movement, the pilot monitoring will stop the movement by ___.
• Do not set the Autopilot Refuel Mode Switch to OFF when a receiver is within approximately how many feet of the contact position?
• Why is situational awareness critical and what are cues to maintain it?
• What are the basic principles of radiotelephony phraseology in aviation?
• What action should you take if marginal weather makes a landing uncertain?
• The asymmetric Go-Around N1 power setting is based on not exceeding Vmca on the ___ engine.
• A nacelle fire is indicated by which combination of indicators?
• What is the minimum thrust percentage at stabilization for touch-and-go?
• Explain the difference between a cold front and a warm front and typical effects on flight conditions.
• What is the PIC's role regarding flight progress and decision-making?
• During rendezvous with fighters, request ___ consecutive altitudes to allow 1,000 ft below the fighters for maneuvering to the tanker.
• If rudder fails to reduce to the low range after flap retraction, set the rudder power switch to OFF prior to ___.
• Which sequence correctly describes calculating the aircraft's center of gravity (CG) using weight and moment data?
• What term describes the fuel that must be on board to cover all fuel required for the mission, including contingencies?
• The wing manifold can be divided into two sections by which valve?
• Operating the ___ A/R pumps and the ___ simultaneously will result in slow operation of the gear and reduced climbout performance.
• FSAS can be used to compute speeds for the described final approach in the one-engine-inoperative scenario.
• One of the allowed actions is to operate the generator in an isolated manner.
• For touch-and-go landings, once thrust is stabilized (40% minimum), the pilot monitoring will state what?
• How does workload management reduce the risk of loss of situational awareness?
• HDG mode shall not be used in which areas or for heading reversals?
• During engine-out procedures, what is the recommended climb direction if terrain permits?
• If alerting equipment is used, altitude calls and acknowledgments may be accomplished by this equipment.
• During the main flap manual operation, to assure adequate lateral control in the lower speed range, the ___ flaps should be started down first and brought up last to permit use of the outboard ailerons for as long as possible during flaps down low speed flight.
• An excessive pitch angle triggering disengagement is defined as pitch greater than which pair of values?
• N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speed will be recomputed when any of the following occur: gross weight changes 10,000 lbs; temperature changes 3C; pressure altitude changes 500; airplane configuration changes or wind conditions require adjustment.
• Which statement best describes the components of a proper loss-of-communication procedure in aviation?
• Minimum weather (RVR) for takeoff is ___ for operational and ___ for all others.
• Never attempt to work on equipment using ___ power.
• Which flaps should start down first and be brought up last to permit use of outboard ailerons during flaps down low speed flight?
• The PM will announce below or above any assigned altitude during climb or descent; the PF must acknowledge. What is the exact altitude value and acknowledgment requirement?
• Explain the importance of standard operating procedures (SOPs) and how they support safety?
• If the waypoint identified as a pattern fix becomes the active waypoint while an offset is defined, or a hold pattern is applied to the active waypoint with an offset applied, the offset is automatically canceled.
• How do you ensure you and your crew remain current and proficient for initial qualification in ongoing operations?
• What is the purpose of NOTAMs and how should a pilot use them?
• A departure alternate is required if __ is below landing minimums for the lowest suitable approach (at departure aerodrome)
• Why are checklists critical and when should they be used during flight?
• Required ramp fuel will consist of all fuel required for ___.
• Holding (fuel reserves) for remote or island destination: If weather conditions require an alternate airfield in accordance with AFI 11-202 V3, aircrews may use ___ hours of holding fuel (in lieu of an alternate)